Upon close scrutiny of my previous two spills, one invariably recognizes the queer usage of the word after for something one may naturally guess as "after all". So why in the world does this truncation happen, and to add insult to the injury, twice in a row? Having no psychology degree in the backpack of my expertise, I will talk in a boorish manner on the subject of subconciousness. The word "all" perhaps rings a bit too formally of mathematical deduction. We say "for all" many a times to imply the heroic intrusion of a theorem. So I must’ve suppressed such a momentous syllable for want of better occasion. On another thought, "after all" is all too trite and perhaps bureacratic. It is no wonder a remarkable pivot phrase, used and abused by good and bad essayist alike. One notes, however, that it really means something like because, followed by a "duh!", maybe a soft "duh", and a " ’cause". It is in the nature of mankind to simpify things, and not bother with the details. So literally interpreted, "after all" reeks the innuendo of throwing all the foreplay out and plunge right into business. I must be careful here not to inveigh upon a certain class of English speakers who respect foreplay and resent business. But the analogy is after all an analogy and was only made for convenience of the tongue.
p.s. I deleted my previous post for inappropriateness..